2. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Serological examination
4. Bacteriological examination
77. Which of the following culture media can be used for blood culture bacteriological examination in typhoid fever suspected?
Levine EMB agar
10% bile broth
Kligler iron agar
1% peptone water
78. The diarrhea in salmonellosis develops as the result of which of the following mechanisms:
1. Action of salmonella enterotoxin
Action of effector proteins of TTSS-1 causing inflammation
3. Arachidonic acid activation by endotoxin
4. Salmonella invasion and multiplication in the enterocytes
79. The possible vehicles for Shigella sp. transmission are which of the following?
1. Food products (contaminated)
2. Contaminated dirty hands
3. Contaminated water
4. Animals
80. The biochemical features of E. coli are which of the following: They
1. ferment glucose
2. possess cytochromoxidase
3. utilize lactose
4. produce H2S
81. Effective vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of:
1. tuberculosis
2. diphtheria
3. whooping cough
4. leprosy
82. Which of the following bacteria are the pathogens that cause invasion of colonocytes?
1. S. sonnei
2. Eiec
3. S. flexneri
4. S. Paratyphi A
83. The cultural properties of L. pneumophila are which of the following: They
1. can be isolated on BCYE medium
2. are aerobes
3. grow slowly (up to 2 weeks)
4. are gram-negative rods
84. Which of the following statements characterize the cultural properties of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
1. They require enriched media
2. They are aerobic bacteria
3. They grow very slowly (4-8 weeks)
4. They are not cultured on artificial media
85. Which of the following reagents can be used for Salmonella serotyping:
1. Preabsorbed O-antisera
2. OH-diagnosticum
3. Preabsorbed H-antisera
4. Patient’s serum
86. The C. diphtheriae and C. pseudodiphthericum can be distinguished from each other by:
1. their appearance in smears
2. volutin granules location
3. exotoxin production
4. biochemical properties
87. Which of the following statements concerning the distinguishing features of Vibrio cholerae are true?
1. It is a comma-shaped bacterium
2. It can digest starch
3. It can digest sucrose
4. It may belong to O1 or O139 serogroup
88. The distinguishing features of leprosy causative agent are which of the following: They
1. are acid-fast bacteria
2. grow slowly on enriched media
3. cannot be cultured in vitro
4. produce exotoxin
89. Which of the following culture media can be used for bacteriological examination in cholera suspected?
1. Alkaline agar
1% peptone water
TCBS
10% bile broth
90. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used for rapid diagnosing of cholera?
1. IF-test
2. Skin allergic test
3. PCR
4. Biological examination
91. Which of the following diagnostic methods can be used on the second week of typhoid fever?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Biological examination
4. Serological examination
92. The diarrhea development in salmonellosis is due to which of the following mechanisms:
1. Salmonella enterotoxin action
Salmpnella shiga-toxin action to colonocytes
Arachidonic acid activation by endotoxin
Neurotoxin action
93. The microbiological methods used for typhoid fever diagnosing are which of the following:
Bacteriological examination
2. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Serological examination
4. Biological examination
94. The distinguishing features of L. pneumophila are which of the following: They
1. are gram-negative bacteria
2. are aerobes
3. are fastidious bacteria
4. possess cytotoxin
95. W9hich of the following are the tests for serological examination in enteric fevers?
1. IHA-test
2. Slide agglutination test
3. Serial dilution agglutination test
4. PCR
96. The Bordetella pertussis and B.parapertussis can be differed from each other by:
1. nutritional needs
2. time of culturing
3. enzymatic activity
4. location of volutin granules
97. The diphtheria exotoxin properties are which of the following: It
1. inhibits the synthesis of protein
2. is inactivated by antitoxic antiserum
3. causes the pseudomembranes formation on mucosal cells
4. is produced only by lysogenic cultures
98. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for typhoid fever prophylaxis are which of the following:
1. Subunit vaccine
2. Bacteriophage
3. Killed vaccine
4. Toxoid
99. The pure culture of suspected Shigella sp. was inoculated in the Kligler iron agar. Which of the following are possible results of Shigella sp. growth?
red butt
yellow slant
black dots in the butt
yellow butt
100. The microbiological methods used for bacterial dysentery diagnosing are which of the following:
1. Skin allergic test
2. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Biological examination
4. Bacteriological examination
Match each of the following steps of bacteriological examination in infant’s diarrhea with the appropriate manipulations:
101. The first step -... 102. The second step -... 103. The third step -... 104. The fourth step -... 105. The fifth step - |
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Match each of the following human infectious diseases with its causative agent:
106. Enteric escherichiosis 107. Salmonellosis (Salmonella food poisoning) 108. Enteric yersiniosis 109. Shigellosis |
A. S. Typhi B. S. flexneri C. S. Typhimurium D. Y. enterocolitica E. EIEC |
Match each of the following affecting mechanisms to the gut cells with the appropriate pathogen:
110. Transcytosis of intestinal epithelial cells and cells injury 111. Adhesion and colonization of the cells’ surfaces in small intestine without cells damage 112. Invasion and intracellular multiplication in colon epithelial cells
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Match each of the following characteristics listed below with the appropriate bacteria:
113. They are gram-negative rods 114. They possess volutin granules 115. They are fastidious bacteria |
A. B.pertussis B. B.parapertussis C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following mechanisms of invasion of gut cells with the appropriate pathogen:
116. Transcytosis of small intestine epithelial cells without cell injury 117. Invasion and intracellular multiplication in colonocytes 118. Adhesion and colonization of the cells’ surfaces in small intestine without invasion
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Match each of the following steps of bacteriological examination in salmonellosis with the appropriate manipulations:
119. The first step -... 120. The second step -... 121. The third step -... 122. The fourth step -... 123. The fifth step -… |
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Match each of the following steps of bacteriologic examination in diphtheria with the appropriate manipulations:
124. The first step -... 125. The second step -... 126. The third step -... 127. The fourth step -... 128. The fifth step - |
A. Detection of toxigenicity of culture tested using Ouchterlony method B. Inoculation of Klauberg’s medium with patient’s specimens C. Examination of cultural properties D. Microscopical examination of colonies E. Identification of bacteria by examining of biochemical features |
Match each of the following infectious diseases with the appropriate diarrheagenic E.coli:
129. Infant’s diarrhea 130. Persistent diarrhea 131. Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) 132. Travelers’ diarrhea |
A. EPEC B. ETEC C. EAEC D. EIEC E. EHEC
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Match each of the following steps of bacteriological examination in shigellosis with the appropriate manipulations:
133. The first step -... 134. The second step -... 135. The third step -... 136. The fourth step -... 137. The fifth step - |
A. Subculturing of colorless colony in Kligler iron agar and mannitol-containing Hiss medium B. Inoculation of Levine EMB agar with bacterial culture from enrichment medium C. Inoculation of GN broth with patient’s stool specimens D. Slide agglutination test with preabsorbed antisera E. The antibiotic susceptibility test
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Match each of the following steps of bacteriological examination in typhoid fever with the appropriate manipulations:
138. The first step -... 139. The second step -... 140. The third step -... 141. The fourth step -... 142. The fifth step - |
C. Inoculation of 10% bile broth with patient’s blood D. Subculturing of colorless colony in Kligler iron agar E. Slide agglutination test with preabsorbed O-and H-antisera
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Match each of the following characteristics listed below with the appropriate bacteria:
143. They are gram-positive rods 144. They possess volutin granules 145. They lie at acute angles to one another in the smear
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A. C. diphtheriae B. C. pseudodiphthericum C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following human infectious disease with its causative agent:
146. Legionnaire’s disease 147. Tuberculosis 148. Whooping cough
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A. M. bovis B. B. pertussis C. C. trachomatis D. L. pneumophila E. M. pneumoniae
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Match each of the following characteristics with the Shigella sp. listed below:
149. It is mannitol-positive 150.It is mainly transmitted with contaminated water 151. It multiplies in intestinal lymphoid tissue 152. It utilizes glucose
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Match each of the following statement with the appropriate vaccine:
153. It contains killed bacteria 154. It induces antitoxic passive immunity 155. It contains diphtheria toxoid
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Match each of the following human infectious diseases with its causative agent:
156. Cholera 157. Salmonellosis (Salmonella gastroenteritis) 158. Infant’s diarrhea 159. Shigellosis |
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Match each of the following affecting mechanisms to the human gut cells with the appropriate pathogen:
160. Transcytosis of small intestine epithelial cells leading to the cell damage 161. Transcytosis of small intestine epithelial cells without the cell injury 162. Adhesion and local damage of the brush border of enterocytes |
A. EIEC B. Salmonella sp. C. V. cholerae D. Yersinia sp. E. EPEC |
Match each of the following statement with the appropriate vaccine:
163. It induces antitoxic immunity 164. It induces active immunity 165. It is a component of DPT vaccine
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Match each of the following human infectious diseases with its causative agent:
166. Infant's diarrhea 167. Cholera 168. Enteric fever 169. Shigellosis |
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Match each of the following characteristics listed below with the appropriate disease:
170. It is an air-borne infection 171. Immunity following infection is of short duration 172. Antitoxic antiserum is employed for treatment 173. Killed vaccine is available for immunoprophylaxis 174. DPT vaccine is used for immunoprophylaxis 175. The causative agent belongs to genus Legionella |
A. Diphtheria B. Whooping cough C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
The TASK. The pure bacterial culture was isolated from the blood of a patient suspected of having typhoid fever. Answer the following questions on the TASK: 176. Which of the following pathogens can cause enteric fever?
177. Bacteria tested were gram-negative rods which formed colorless colonies on Levine EMB agar. The colorless colonies were subcultured onto Kligler iron agar and Simmons’ citrate medium. Which of the following are possible results of bacterial growth on these media?
178. Which of the following antigens the typhoid fever causative agent may possess?
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