1 Million

4.Which of the following are strategies used by employers to reduce the risk of workplace violence?

All of the above

5. A management program relating to safety and health in the workplace has:

A and B

1. Preventing workplace violence is a natural extension of the responsibilities of safety and health professionals.

True

2. Approximately one million people are victims of workplace violence every year.

True

3. Almost 80% of all violent acts in the workplace are committed by males.

True

4. When dealing with violent incidents on the job, it is important to remember that even the perpetrator has rights.

True

5. A violent act cannot be considered an on-the-job incident when it is committed away from the workplace.

False

6. Employee rights are protected by employment contracts, collective bargaining agreements, and civil rights statutes.

True

7. Specific guidelines have been established by CRTED for determining whether a violent act can be classified as an on-the-job incident.

False

8. OSHA has produced voluntary advisory guidelines relating to workplace violence.

True

9. The majority of violent incidents reported each year are fistfights.

True

10. The voluntary advisory guidelines are aimed only for the retail industry.

False

Chapter 14

1. When a body part comes in contact with a sharp edge, which of the following occurs?

Cutting

2. Which type of guard shuts down the machine when the guard is not securely in place?

Interlock

3. An optical device that shuts down the machine any time the light field is broken is a(n):

Photoelectric device

4. The best guard used in a robot's work envelope is a(n):

Physical barrier

5. When a machine is being operated without the safeguard, which of the following actions should be taken?

Stop the machine immediately.

1. Concerns about mechanical hazards have only become important in recent years.

False

2. In an industrial setting, people interact with machines that are designed to drill, cut, stamp, punch, and shape such materials as metals, plastics, and elastomers.

True

3. The most common mechanical injuries are cutting, tearing, shearing, crushing, breaking, straining, spraining, and puncturing.

True

4. The National Safety Council defines safeguarding as minimizing the risk of accidents.

True

5.Guards are not effective when used at the point of operation.

False

6. Fixed guards provide a temporary barrier between workers and the point of operation.

False

7. Three types of point-of-operation guards are fixed, interlocked, and adjustable.

True

8. The best robot safeguard is roping the work area off.

False

9. OSHA’s standard for the control of hazardous energy is often referred to as the “Lockout/Tagout standard.”

True

10. Regardless of the type of problem, the key in responding is immediacy.

True

Chapter 15

1. Which of the following is not one of the primary causes of falls?

Fall prevention component

2. The method used for measuring surface traction is called:

Coefficient of friction

3. 40% of injuries occur in the first year of employment. In which of the following areas do most of these injuries occur?

Back-related

4. Hard hats are tested to withstand how many foot-pounds of impact?

40

5. The National Safety Council recommends all the following do's when using a ladder except:

Do lean the ladder against a fragile, slippery, or unstable surface.

1. A foreign object is any object that is out of place or in position to trip someone or to cause a slip.

True

2. Injuries from a fall are likely to be minimal if the victim strikes a bony body part.

False

3. A stable platform for walking has a high degree of traction and is free from obstructions.

True

4. A floor surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.2 or less is very slippery and hazardous.

True

5. In a slip and fall prevention program, the policy statement serves the purpose of conveying the employees’ commitment to safety.

False

6. Inspecting ladders before every use may prevent a fall.

True

7. The use of hard hats in industrial settings that might have falling objects has been mandated by federal law since 1981.

False

8. Approximately 40% of the population will experience lower back pain at some point in their lives.

False

9. A coefficient of friction of 0.4 or higher means the surface is very slippery and hazardous.

False

10. Most falls fit into one of four categories: trip and fall, stump and fall, step and fall, and slip and fall.

True

Chapter 16

1. When heat gain from any source or sources is more than the body can compensate for by sweating, the result is:

Heat stress

2. The severity of a burn depends on several factors. The most important of these is:

Depth to which burn penetrates

3. Critical burns are second-degree burns covering what percentage of body surface?

30%

4. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to cold injury?

Convection

5. Which of the following types of cold stress is not considered a less severe disorder?

Hypothermia

1. Convection is the transfer of heat between two bodies that are touching or from one location to another within a body.

False

2. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one location to another by way of a moving medium (gas or liquid).

False

3. Heat stroke is a type of heat stress that occurs as a result of a rapid rise in the body’s core temperature.

True

4. Heat exhaustion is a type of heat stress that occurs as a result of water and/or salt depletion.

True

5. The skin serves several important purposes, including the following: protection of body tissue, sensation, secretion, excretion, and respiration.

True

6. Third-degree burns are minor and result only in a mild inflammation of the skin known as erythema.

False

7. First-degree burns are classified as critical burns.

False

8. Windchill factor is the cooling effect produced by a combination of temperature, wind, velocity, and/or air movement.

True

9. Damage from frostbite affects only the outer layer of the skin.

False

10. Hypothermia is the condition that results when the body’s core temperature drops to dangerously low levels.

True

Chapter 17

1. All of the following are safety hazards associated with boilers and other pressurized vessels EXCEPT:

Proper operator training

2. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

Oxygen

3. Water vapor, although it is a gas, does not conform to:

Dalton's law

4. Which of the following situations may cause a vacuum?

Pressures below the atmospheric level

5. Atmospheric pressure is usually measured with a(n):

Barometer

1. Pressure is the force exerted against an opposing fluid or thrust distributed over a surface.

True

2. Boyle’s law states that the product of a given pressure and volume is constant with a constant temperature.

True

3. A boiler is an open vessel in which water is heated to form steam, hot water, or high-temperature water under pressure.

False

4. Compressed air tanks are an example of unfired pressure vessels.

True

5. The least effective preventive measure for overcoming potential pressure hazards is proper design.

False

6. Ultrasonic and X-ray waves are forms of destructive testing methods used to detect cracks or leaks.

False

7. To reduce pressure hazards, keep pressurized hoses as long as possible.

False

8. Water hammer may damage pipe fittings and valves in a pressure system by producing shock waves.

True

9. Approximately 79% of the atmosphere is oxygen, with the other 21% being nitrogen.

False

10. A swift return to the surface from diving or decompression during high-altitude flight may cause lung rupture.

True

Chapter 18

1. Ohm’s law is stated as _____, where V=volts, I=amps, and R=ohms.

V = IR

2. A tree is a common natural path for what type of electrical hazard?

Lightning

3. Power is measured in:

Watts

4. In the United States, a standard AC circuit cycles how many times per second?

60

5.Which safety device is used to detect the flow of current to the ground and open the circuit?

Ground fault interrupter

1. The path of flow of electrons is from a positive source to a negative point.

False

2. Most industrial and domestic use of electricity is supplied by direct current.

False

3. The NEC specifies industrial and domestic electrical safety precautions.

True

4. A circuit tester may be used to test 110-volt circuits only.

False

5. The current effect on the human body of 50–100 milliamps may result in death after 3 minutes of contact.

True

6. Grounding of electrical equipment is the primary method of reducing electrical hazards.

True

7. Television antenna towers do not require grounding.

False

8. When necessary, a fuse with greater capacity than was prescribed for the circuit may be used.

False

9. To reduce the risk of electrocution by lightning, do not use electrical equipment during a storm.

True

10. A continuity tester may be used to determine whether a conductor is properly grounded or has a break in the circuit.

True

Chapter 19

1. What three elements are required to start and sustain fire?

Fuel, heat, and oxygen

2. Fires are classified according to their properties, which relate to the nature of the fuel. What class of fire has a metal fuel?

Class D

3. Which of the following are products of combustion?

Gases, flame, heat, and smoke

4. The result of incomplete combustion of fuel is carbon monoxide, which is:

All of the above

5. The National Fire Protection Association has devised a system, NFPA 704, for quick identification of hazards presented when substances burn. Which color is used to identify reactivity?

Yellow

1. The three elements required to start and sustain a fire are oxygen, fuel, and heat.

True

2. Combustion and fire are endothermic reactions and can often generate large quantities of heat.

False

3. Carbon dioxide is produced when there is more oxygen than the fire needs.

True

4. Heat always flows from a higher temperature to a lower temperature.

True

5. Flash point is the highest temperature for a given fuel at which vapors are produced in sufficient concentrations to flash in the presence of a source of ignition.

False

6. Class B fires include flammable liquids and gases.

True

7. Most people die in fires from suffocation or from breathing smoke and toxic fumes.

True

8. The best way to reduce fires is to prevent their occurrence.

True

9. The trend in fire safety standards is toward specification-based standards and away from the traditional performance-based approach.

False

10. OSHA has mandated the monthly and annual inspection and recording of the condition of fire extinguishers in industrial settings.

True

Chapter 20

1. Toxic effects are a function of several factors. Which of the following is not a factor?

Time of day

2. Which of the following is associated with chronic effects/exposures of toxic substances?

Little or no awareness of exposures on the part of affected workers

3. Which industry has had a long history of dealing with industrial hygiene problems?

Textile

4. What are the key concepts in the Indoor Air Quality Standard?

All of the above

5. OSHA recommends a three-step process for investigating the possibility of the presence of toxic mold in the workplace. Which of the following are the three steps?

All of the above

1. The Environmental Protection Agency began measuring toxic substance emission in 1987.

True

2. A toxic substance is one that has a negative effect on the health of a person or animal.

True

3. The route of entry which health and safety professionals should be most concerned with is inhalation.

True

4. When dealing with toxic substances, the dose threshold is the maximum dose required to produce a measurable effect.

False

5. A lethal dose of a given substance is the dose that is highly likely to cause death.

True

6. Every workplace environment employs industrial hygiene specialists.

False

7. Physical hazards are related to the design and condition of the workplace.

False

8. The most common types of airborne contaminants are dust, fumes, smoke, aerosols, mists, gases, and vapors.

True

9. Medical research has clearly tied asbestos to respiratory cancer.

True

10. Asbestos removal is also known as asbestos abatement.

True

Chapter 21

1. How many rems per calendar quarter is the limit of exposure for the hands and forearms?